Tuesday, July 19, 2005

Cryptic previous Post

I was rushed off the 'puter when I wrote the last post. The point I intended to make was that; if a person is seeking divorce due to "falling in love" with someone else and there are children from the marriage then, they should be required (by law) to take those children with them. Especially if they are under the age of 10.
Here's the logic behind my thinking: The other parent that is left devastated and alone to raise the kid and mourn the lost relationship can in no way be a parent. On many levels. I am not going to go into examples or details on why. If you think about it - you'll know what I mean.

1 comment:

  1. If that were the case don't you think that the children would be more likely to repeat the act of divorcing to run off with some one else? They would be less likely to see the devistation if they were not with the parent who was hurt. The would be more likely to be convinced that what was done was just by the offending partent. So our children would be more likely to repeat the act as they wouldn't see it as negative.

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